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using colbias

Mike Fitzpatrick wrote on Nov 30, 2009

hi,
i'm an IRAF beginner and currently going through the exercises tutorial. my problem is : why do we fit a chebyshev function of order 1in the "colbias" section? why not a legendre or spline? is it because we are using an averge?
please help............

Amal Mirando

[Mod Note: Forwarded from 'Submissions' link]

Mike Fitzpatrick wrote on Nov 30, 2009

Yes, the intent is to subtract the average of the bias region.

Last post on Nov 30, 2009